Yeah, it was identified in ancient Greece, among women who didn't have sex, and then basically reappeared in the Victorian Era, which is what I'm talking about, how the climax was reclassified and rendered a "disturbance" rather than a requirement.
Look, ancient peoples weren't technological, but they also weren't stupid; I don't think women had no orgasms throughout history until the 20th century, and I don't think men didn't realize what was up with that. But I do believe that "science" can preach something and culture can take it up and believe it, whether or not science is actually accurate in that case. Hell, they convinced most of Western civilization for decades that breast milk (which was designed specifically for human babies for the entire existence of our species) was less healthy for kids than artificial formula.
EDIT: Further, before the Victorian era, I'd be hard-pressed to determine any serious scientific/medical inquiry into human sexuality. Victorians were generally interested in it because culture forbade it and yet it's an integral part of the human experience, so of course they were obsessed with it, and they were finally developing the tools they needed to do that kind of research, but with the cultural hang-ups, of course when they finally got around to investigating female orgasm, they'd classify it as hysteria, something negative. So for formal scientific investigation of the phenomenon, yes, the medical community didn't recognize it until recently. However, my initial comment was rather pre-Victorian, and isn't invalidated (if anything, it's supported) by the anti-orgasm definitions of later years.